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Share some CCNA Collaboration 210-065 exam questions and answers below. A customer owns three Codian 5300 MCUs with several video endpoints. Users complain that they are getting multipoint control unit port capacity errors when scheduling video conferences in Cisco TMS. What can be done to correct these errors automatically? A. Enable the Automatic MCU Cascading option in the Cisco TMS Conference Settings. B. Install a Cascading option key on the Cisco TMS server. C. Install a Cisco TelePresence Conductor server. D. Install cascaded multipoint control units. Answer: C
Which two Cisco TelePresence systems would be appropriate for an executive personal office? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Jabber B. Cisco IP Video Phone E20 C. Cisco TelePresence EX Series D. Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence E. Cisco TelePresence System 500 Answer: C, E
Which three features does Cisco VCS provide? (Choose three.) A. native Cisco SCCP telephony integration B. SIP-H.323 interworking functionality C. native scheduling D. SIP trunk integration with Cisco Unified Communications Manager E. third-party standards-based H.323 and SIP device registration F. reverse proxy functionality Answer: B, D, E
An executive in XYZ Corporation wants to purchase a desktop video endpoint that can be used for conferencing, as well as a monitor when not in a conference. Which option do you recommend? A. C20 B. EX90 C. C90 D. SX80 E. MX300 2nd generation F. Cisco TelePresence Profile Series endpoint Answer: B
Which CLI command must be used to configure the network settings on a Cisco TelePresence 4500 MCU? A. Static A [] B. Network ip C. Xconfig network address D. Xconfig network address Answer: A
An engineer is receiving several Cisco TMS email alerts for system phonebooks that are not updating. Which menu path should the engineer use to suppress these Cisco TMS email alerts? A. TMS > Clear this ticket B. TMS > SMTP settings C. TMS > Manage ticket error levels D. TMS > Ticket management E. TMS > Email notification settings Answer:
A technician is tasked with performing a room readiness assessment in preparation for an immersive video endpoint. What are three Cisco best practices regarding lighting recommendations for the room? (Choose three.) A. The bulb temperature should be between 4000 and 4100K. B. Key lighting should be between 200 and 400 Lux with the endpoint powered on. C. Shoulder lighting should not exceed two times the facial lighting values with the endpoint off. D. Use direct lighting fixtures. E. Within the camera field of view, the lighting for all parts of the room should not fluctuate more than 100 Lux. F. Avoid using dimming light control systems. Answer: A, C, E
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Share some CCNA Collaboration 210-060 exam questions and answers below. Which four fields must an administrator complete to create a new user in Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose four.) A. Alias B. User type C. Extension D. Corporate email address E. First name F. Last name G. Employee ID H. Template Answer: A,B,C,H
Which three locations can an administrator import from to create users on Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.) A. Bulk administration tool B. LDAP C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager via AXL D. Outlook E. Presence F. Cisco Compatible Extensions Answer: A,B,C
What is the interface type that you should use to connect a PSTN analog line to the VoIP network? A. FXS B. FXO C. E and M D. Serial Answer: B
An end user is experiencing performance issues with their IP phone. Which phone feature could the administrator configure to allow the end user to notify them when issues occur? A. Cisco Quality Report Tool B. System Log Management C. Cisco CDR Analysis and Reporting D. Cisco JTAPI Answer: A
Which scenario allows user A in partition X to call user B in Cisco Unified Communications Manager? A. User B in partition X is not assigned to any CSS. B. User B in partition Y assigns both partitions to CSS-X. C. User B is not assigned to any partition or CSS. D. User B is assigned to partition Y and assigns to CSS-X. Answer: B
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The Fault Condition is related to which technology? A. BGP B. NTP C. IP NAT D. IPv4 OSPF Routing E. IPv4 OSPF Redistribution F. IPv6 OSPF Routing G. IPv4 layer 3 security Answer: A
What is the solution of the fault condition? A. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat inside command B. Under the interface Serial0/0/1 configuration enter the ip nat outside command C. Under the ip access-list standar nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 command D. Under the ip access-list standar nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 command Answer: C
How to check MTU of interface using ping? / How can you check the links mtu size with ping command? A. ping 10.1.1.1 size 1501 B. ping 10.1.1.1 size 1500 df-bit C. ping 10.1.1.1 D. ping 10.1.1.1 no-size Answer: B
What is the solution of the fault condition? A. Under the BGP process,enter the bgp redistribute-internal command B. Under the BGP process, bgp confederation identifier 65001 command C. Delete the current BGP process and reenter all of the commands using 65002 as theAS number. D. Under the BGP process, delete the neighbor 209.56.200.226 remote-as 65002 command enter the neighbor 209.65.200.226 remote-as 65002 command. Answer: D
What is the solution to the fault condition? A. Under the interface Tunnel34 configuration enter the ipv6 ospf 6 area 34 command. B. Under the interface Loopback6 configuration enter the ipv6 ospf 6 area 34 command. C. Under the interface Serial0/0/0.34 configuration enter the ipv6 ospf 6 area 34 command. D. Under ipv6 router ospf 6 configuration enter the redistribute rip RIP_ZONE include-connected command. Answer: D
Two routers are connected through PPP connection. After the PPP was established the admin put OSPF running above it. The OSPF formed adjacency but after soon the adjacency dropped. What is the reason? (The cause of OSPF forming an adjacency over a GRE tunnel and dropping immediately) A. MTU does not match B. Area 0 need to exist for OSPF to function properly C. Gre tunnel destination is not reachable through tunnel D. Gre tunnel ip address must be covered by network under ¡°router ospf 1¡± E. ospf routes contains the route to tunnel destination Answer: C
What is the solution of the fault condition? A. Under the BGP process,enter the bgp redistribute-internal command B. Under the BGP process, bgp confederation identifier 65001 command C. Delete the current BGP process and reenter all of the commands using 65002 as the AS number. D. Under the BGP process, delete the neighbor 209.56.200.226 remote-as 65002 command enter the neighbor 209.65.200.226 remote-as 65002 command. Answer: D
The Fault Condition is related to which technology? A. BGP B. NAT C. IP NAT D. IPv4 OSPF Routing E. IPv4 OSPF Redistribution F. IPv6 OSPF Routing G. IPv4 layer 3 security Answer: C
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Which two statements about using leased lines for your WAN infrastructure are true? (Choose two.) A. Leased lines provide inexpensive WAN access. B. Leased lines with sufficient bandwidth can avoid latency between endpoints. C. Leased lines require little installation and maintenance expertise. D. Leased lines provide highly flexible bandwidth scaling. E. Multiple leased lines can share a router interface. F. Leased lines support up to T1 link speeds. Answer: CD
Which two statements about IPv6 router advertisement messages are true? (Choose two.) A. They use ICMPv6 type 134. B. The advertised prefix length must be 64 bits. C. The advertised prefix length must be 48 bits. D. They are sourced from the configured IPv6 interface address. E. Their destination is always the link-local address of the neighboring node. Answer: AB
How to create a trunk port and allow VLAN 20? (Choose Three.) A. switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q B. switchport mode trunk C. switchport trunk allowed vlan 20 D. switchport trunk native vlan 20 Answer: ABC
Which two correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.) A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information. B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment. C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information. D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment. E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link. Answer: AD
Which function does IP SLA ICMP ECHO operation perform to assist with troubleshooting A. packet-loss detection B. congestion detection C. hop-by-hop response time D. one way jitter measurement Answer: C
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Share some Network Appliance NCDA Certification NS0-158 exam questions and answers below. Clustered Data ONTAP supports which three versions of NFS? (Choose three.) A. NFSv4.1 B. NFSv4 C. NFSv3 D. NFSv2 E. NFSv1 Answer: A,B,C
Your company is told that it must follow strict requirements for auditing purposes when creating user accounts for each department. Which feature in clustered Data ONTAP accomplishes this task? A. LDAP integration B. workgroup access C. role-based access control D. mixed-mode security Answer: C
A customer has configured SnapDrive for Windows to assist in creating Snapshot copies of a LUN. In SnapDrive, the transport protocol configuration uses the vsadminuser account for authentication. SnapDrive fails to connect to the SVM. Why did this failure occur? A. Transport protocol requires a domain Windows account. B. The vsadmin account is locked or does not have a password. C. SnapDrive requires a cluster-wide privileged account. D. Transport protocol requires a local Windows account. Answer: B
A customer¡¯s Linux Oracle database requires a SAN solution with multiple FC connections for path resiliency and performance. The host has been provisioned with two dual-port FC HBAs, and each HBA is connected to each fabric. Before configuring the storage, what host information should the storage administrator obtain from the customer? (Choose two.) A. if the FC HBAs ports are all configured for an active/passive configuration. B. the amount of cache memory installed in the host C. if the DM-MP with ALUA support is configured on the host D. the WWPNs of all the FC ports in the host Answer: C,D
Which two backup engines are supported within clustered Data ONTAP? (Choose two.) A. SMT ape B. dump C. tape D. xcopy Answer: A,B
While reviewing a controller, you find that an aggregate aggr1 made of 6 TB hard-disk drives has two RAID groups, one with 14 disks and the other with eight disks. Which action caused the RAID groups to be different? A. The aggregate was created with the RAID group option set to 2. B. The aggregate was created with advanced drive partitioning. C. The aggregate was moved from one controller to its partner. D. The aggregate was created from the command line using the default configuration. Answer: D
Which NetApp management tool configures AutoSupport for nodes in a cluster? A. OnCommand System Manager B. ConfigAdvisor C. OnCommand Performance Manager D. OnCommand Insight Answer: A
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Share some CCDP 300-320 exam questions and answers below. Which protocol should be run on the LAN side of two edge routers (that are terminating primary and backup WAN circuits) to provide quick failover in case of primary WAN circuit failure? A. VTP B. STP C. VRRP D. RIP Answer: C
Which protocol should be configured if a network administrator wants to configure multiple physical gateways to participate simultaneously in packet forwarding? A. HSRP B. VRRP C. GLBP D. VTP Answer: C
Which route summarization most efficiently reduces perceived network complexity that is composed of subnetworks ranging from 172.16.20.0/24 to 172.16.36.0/24? A. 172.16.8.0/21 B. 172.16.8.0/19 C. 172.16.20.0/20 D. 172.16.0.0/18 E. 172.16.20.0/19 Answer: D
Which technology extends Layer 2 LANs over any network that supports IP? A. OTV B. VSS C. vPC D. VLAN Answer: A
The direction of the flow of multicast traffic is based on which protocol? A. PIM B. IGMP C. underlying IGP D. MSDP Answer: C
Refer to the exhibit.
A customer requires a web application implementation, but the web server has communication only to the application server and users, and the database server has communication only to the application server. What firewall design is the best fit for this scenario? A. transparent mode with the servers on the same subnet B. routed mode with three security zones C. transparent mode with three security zones D. routed mode with two security zones Answer: B
Refer to the exhibit.
Which functionality must be enabled on router A to connect two networks for translating private addresses into "legal" public addresses on a one-for-one basis? A. PAT B. NAT C. VLAN D. GARP E. PPP Answer: B
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