Sunday, January 28, 2018

Cisco 300-365 WIDEPLOY practice questions

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Share some CCNP Wireless 300-365 exam questions and answers below.
A network engineer for a college dormitory notices that student devices are filling up the SP-DB and are not allowing the shared wireless printers to be discovered. Which feature can be used to reserve space in the SP-DB for the printers? 
A.mDNS-AP 
B.LSS 
C.Priority MAC 
D.sso 
Answer: C

The customer has deployed C7960 phones with clients connected to them. What switch feature could be enabled to distinguish IP voice traffic from client data traffic? 
A.VoiceVLAN 
B.QoS routing 
C.WME 
D.Weighted Queuing 
E.QBSS 
Answer: A

A corporation has a Cisco Unified Wireless Network that has been deployed for voice coverage. The wireless data rates have been tuned to mandatory rates of 18 Mbps and 36 Mbps. Some wireless clients have been experiencing drops streaming multicast video while moving throughout the building. What is the cause of the drop in video? 
A.Clients are roaming at lower data rates and are not maintaining 36Mbps connectivity. 
B.Clients are not roaming due to coverage. This is causing the multicast data to drop due to the client re-associating often. 
C.Clients are connected at 18Mbps; however, other clients are connecting at 12Mbps and are causing the multicast video to degrade. 
D.Clients are maintaining a 12Mbps rate and cannot receive the stream at 18Mbps. 
Answer: A

A WLAN engineer has been asked to upgrade the software on a MSE 3365 Appliance. The engineer cannot access the system using the root password and the Grub password as the details had never been documented. How should the engineer perform the password recovery? 
A.Use a console cable. 
B.Contact Cisco TAC and arrange an RMA of the MSE. 
C.Boot the MSE using the software installation DVD. 
D.The Password can be reset using Prime Infrastructure. 
Answer: A

A customer has implemented several WLANs in an auditorium utilizing a newly dedicated WLC and is experiencing excessive channel utilization regardless of occupancy. Which action reduces channel utilization without removing SSIDs? 
A.Disable MCS data rates 0 through 11. 
B.Disable MCS data rates used by 40 MHz channels. 
C.Disable data rates that use CCK. 
D.Disable VHT data rates. 
Answer: C

Which of the following is not a Cisco RF fingerprinting key advantage over Location Tracking? 
A.Uses existing LWAPP-enabled Cisco Unified Networking components. 
B.Proprietary client hardware or software is required. 
C.Better accuracy and precision. 
D.Reduced calibration effort. 
Answer: B


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Friday, January 26, 2018

Update Cisco CCIE Security 400-251 pdf dump

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Share some CCIE Security 400-251 exam questions and answers below.
Which three statements about the Cisco IPS sensor are true? (Choose three.) 
A. You cannot pair a VLAN with itself. 
B. For a given sensing interface, an interface used in a VLAN pair can be a member of another inline interface pair. 
C. For a given sensing interface, a VLAN can be a member of only one inline VLAN pair, however, a given VLAN can be a member of an inline VLAN pair on more than one sensing interface. 
D. The order in which you specify the VLANs in a inline pair is significant. 
E. A sensing interface in inline VLAN pair mode can have from 1 to 255 inline VLAN pairs. 
Answer: A, C, E 

Which three statements are true regarding RFC 5176 (Change of Authorization)? (Choose three.) 
A. It defines a mechanism to allow a RADIUS server to initiate a communication inbound to a NAD. 
B. It defines a wide variety of authorization actions, including "reauthenticate." 
C. It defines the format for a Change of Authorization packet. 
D. It defines a DM. 
E. It specifies that TCP port 3799 be used for transport of Change of Authorization packets. 
Answer: A, C, D

Which three attributes may be configured as part of the Common Tasks panel of an authorization profile in the Cisco ISE solution? (Choose three.) 
A. VLAN 
B. voice VLAN 
C. dACL name 
D. voice domain permission 
E. SGT 
Answer: A, C, D 

Which two certificate enrollment methods can be completed without an RA and require no direct connection to a CA by the end entity? (Choose two.) 
A. SCEP 
B. TFTP 
C. manual cut and paste 
D. enrollment profile with direct HTTP 
E. PKCS#12 import/export 
Answer: C, E

Which three statements about Cisco Flexible NetFlow are true? (Choose three.) 
A. The packet information used to create flows is not configurable by the user. 
B. It supports IPv4 and IPv6 packet fields. 
C. It tracks all fields of an IPv4 header as well as sections of the data payload. 
D. It uses two types of flow cache, normal and permanent. 
E. It can be a useful tool in monitoring the network for attacks. 
Answer: B, C, E 

Which three statements are true regarding Security Group Tags? (Choose three.) 
A. When using the Cisco ISE solution, the Security Group Tag gets defined as a separate authorization result. 
B. When using the Cisco ISE solution, the Security Group Tag gets defined as part of a standard authorization profile. 
C. Security Group Tags are a supported network authorization result using Cisco ACS 5.x. 
D. Security Group Tags are a supported network authorization result for 802.1X, MAC Authentication Bypass, and WebAuth methods of authentication. 
E. A Security Group Tag is a variable length string that is returned as an authorization result. 
Answer: A, C, D


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Thursday, January 25, 2018

SAS Institute SAS Foundation A00-280 study guide

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Share some SAS Foundation A00-280 exam questions and answers below.
Which program will report all created output objects in the log? 
A. proc ttest data=WORK.DATA1 ods=trace; 
class TREAT; 
var RESULTS; 
run; 
B. ods trace on; 
proc ttest data=WORK.DATA1; 
class TREAT; 
var RESULTS; 
run; 
C. ods trace=log; 
proc ttest data=WORK.DATA1; 
class TREAT; 
var RESULTS; 
run; 
D. ods trace log; 
proc ttest data=WORK.DATA1; 
class TREAT; 
var RESULTS; 
run; 
Answer: B

The following SAS program is submitted: 
proc sort data=SASUSER.VISIT out=PSORT; 
by code descending date cost; 
run; 
Which statement is true regarding the submitted program? 
A. The descending option applies to the variable CODE. 
B. The variable CODE is sorted by ascending order. 
C. The PSORT data set is stored in the SASUSER library. 
D. The descending option applies to the DATE and COST variables. 
Answer: B


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Monday, January 22, 2018

New Update CompTIA certification SY0-501 dumps pdf

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Share some Security+ SY0-501 exam questions and answers below.
Multiple organizations operating in the same vertical want to provide seamless wireless access for their employees as they visit the other organizations. Which of the following should be implemented if all the organizations use the native 802.1x client on their mobile devices? 
A. Shibboleth 
B. RADIUS federation 
C. SAML 
D. OAuth 
E. OpenlD connect 
Answer: D

Which of the following attacks specifically impacts data availability? 
A. DDoS 
B. Trojan 
C. MITM 
D. Rootkit 
Answer: D 

DRAG DROP 
A Security administrator wants to implement strong security on the company smart phones and terminal servers located in the data center. Drag and Drop the applicable controls to each asset type. 
Instructions: Controls can be used multiple times and not all placeholders needs to be filled. When you have completed the simulation, Please select Done to submit. 



Answer: 



Explanation: 
Cable locks are used as a hardware lock mechanism – thus best used on a Data Center Terminal Server. 
Network monitors are also known as sniffers – thus best used on a Data Center Terminal Server. 
Install antivirus software. Antivirus software should be installed and definitions kept current on all hosts. Antivirus software should run on the server as well as on every workstation. In addition to active monitoring of incoming fi les, scans should be conducted regularly to catch any infections that have slipped through- thus best used on a Data Center Terminal Server. 
Proximity readers are used as part of physical barriers which makes it more appropriate to use on a center’s entrance to protect the terminal server. 
Mentor app is an Apple application used for personal development and is best used on a mobile device such as a smart phone. 
Remote wipe is an application that can be used on devices that are stolen to keep data safe. It is basically a command to a phone that will remotely clear the data on that phone. This process is known as a remote wipe, and it is intended to be used if the phone is stolen or going to another user. 
Should a device be stolen, GPS (Global Positioning System) tracking can be used to identify its location and allow authorities to find it - thus best used on a smart phone. 
Screen Lock is where the display should be configured to time out after a short period of inactivity and the screen locked with a password. To be able to access the system again, the user must provide the password. After a certain number of attempts, the user should not be allowed to attempt any additional logons; this is called lockout – thus best used on a smart phone. 
Strong Password since passwords are always important, but even more so when you consider that the device could be stolen and in the possession of someone who has unlimited access and time to try various values – thus best use strong passwords on a smartphone as it can be stolen more easily than a terminal server in a data center. 
Device Encryption- Data should be encrypted on the device so that if it does fall into the wrong hands, it cannot be accessed in a usable form without the correct passwords. It is recommended to you use Trusted Platform Module (TPM) for all mobile devices where possible. 
Use pop-up blockers. Not only are pop-ups irritating, but they are also a security threat. Pop-ups (including pop-unders) represent unwanted programs running on the system, and they can jeopardize the system’s well-being. This will be more effective on a mobile device rather than a terminal server. 
Use host-based firewalls. A firewall is the first line of defense against attackers and malware. Almost every current operating system includes a firewall, and most are turned on by Default- thus best used on a Data Center Terminal Server. 

Which of the following would a security specialist be able to determine upon examination of a server's certificate? 
A. CA public key 
B. Server private key 
C. CSR 
D. OID 
Answer: B

DRAG DROP 
You have been tasked with designing a security plan for your company. Drag and drop the appropriate security controls on the floor plan-Instructions: All objects must be used and all place holders must be filled. Order does not matter. When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit. 



Answer: 



Explanation: 
Cable locks - Adding a cable lock between a laptop and a desk prevents someone from picking it up and walking away 
Proximity badge + reader 
Safe is a hardware/physical security measure 
Mantrap can be used to control access to sensitive areas. 
CCTV can be used as video surveillance. 
Biometric reader can be used to control and prevent unauthorized access. 
Locking cabinets can be used to protect backup media, documentation and other physical artefacts. 


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Share some Veritas Certified Professional (VCP) VCS-257 exam questions and answers below.
Which command configured a disk for use by InfoScale Storage for UNIX? 
A. vxdiskconfig 
B. vxdisksetup 
C. vxdg 
D. vxdmpadm 
Answer: B

What are two benefits of virtual storage using Veritas InfoScale Storage for UNIX/Linux? (Select two.) 
A. the ability to resize storage across physical devices 
B. a decrease in the number of disks needed 
C. improved storage availability by mirroring between arrays 
D. enhanced file sharing 
E. the ability to migrate data to native Logical Volume Manager (LVM) 
Answer: A,E

Which command is used to display current file system I/O parameters for a Veritas file system? 
A. vxtune 
B. vxtunefs 
C. vxstat 
D. fsadm 
Answer: B

A volume that contains strictly two data plexes and has four subdisks in each plex can have which two types of layouts? (Select two.) 
A. concat-mirror 
B. stripe-mirror 
C. stripe with parity 
D. mirror-concat 
E. mirror-stripe 
Answer: D,E

Which two commands are used to configure the site awareness feature? (Select two.) 
A. vxmirror 
B. vxdctl 
C. vxevac 
D. vxdg 
E. vxrelayout 
Answer: B,D

Which command can an administrator use to observe the progress percentage of a mirror resynchronization process during volume recovery? 
A. vxstat 
B. vxtask 
C. vxprint 
D. vxinfo 
Answer: C

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Friday, January 19, 2018

100% Valid | Cisco 300-180 DCIT practice questions

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Share some CCNP Data Center 300-180 exam questions and answers below.
Which three methods can be used to upgrade the Cisco IMC? (Choose three.) 
A. host firmware package 
B. blade firmware package 
C. controller firmware package 
D. management firmware package 
E. directly on the blade, under the Installed Firmware tab 
F. directly on the blade, under the Blade Firmware tab 
G. directly on the blade, under Inventory > CIMC 
Answer: D, E, G

Which log file in Cisco UCS Manager contains information about which user took a specific action? 
A. user access log 
B. system change log 
C. audit log 
D. access control log 
Answer: C

Which protocols can be used to send to Cisco TAC (Technical Assistance Center) the show tech-support command output information about the Cisco UCS domain? (Choose two.) 
A. TFTP 
B. FTP 
C. SCP 
D. Telnet 
E. SecureTelnet 
Answer: B, C

A customer is trying to boot an operating system that is installed on the eUSB on a Cisco UCS B-Series blade server; however, the boot fails. What is the cause of this failure? 
A. The local disk must be the first device in the boot order. 
B. eUSB is not a supported boot device. 
C. eUSB support is available only on the Cisco UCS C-Series rack server. 
D. eUSB is not the first device in the boot order for the server. 
Answer: D

How will the Cisco UCS Manager react when all of the FSM tasks fail? 
A. retries for 60 seconds 
B. raises faults and alarms 
C. restarts from the previous known good task 
D. sends an NOC SNMP trap email 
Answer: B

A customer calls in a trouble ticket complaining of unacceptable read I/O latency on a Cisco UCS C210 M2 server with an LSI MegaRAID 9260-8i with an 8-disk RAID-10 virtual disk. 
As you validate the RAID controller configuration, which of these configured items impacts read performance at the controller level? 
A. all disks are 146GB 6 Gb SAS 15K RPM SFF 
B. read ahead cache is enabled 
C. BGI rate = 0 
D. strip size = 256k 
E. no hot spare 
Answer: D


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Sunday, January 14, 2018

Microsoft certification 70-533 dumps pdf

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Share some Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Solutions 70-533 exam questions and answers below.
You manage an Azure Active Directory (AD) tenant You plan to allow users to log in to a third-party application by using their Azure AD credentials. To access the application, users will be prompted for their existing third-party user names and passwords. You need to add the application to Azure AD.Which type of application should you add? 
A. Existing Single Sign-On with identity provisioning 
B. Password Single Sign-On with identity provisioning 
C. Existing Single Sign-On without identity provisioning 
D. Password Single Sign-On without identity provisioning 
Answer: D

You are migrating a local virtual machine (VM) to an Azure VM. You upload the virtual hard disk (VHD) file to Azure Blob storage as a Block Blob.You need to change the Block blob to a page blob.What should you do? 
A. Delete the Block Blob and re-upload the VHD as a page blob. 
B. Update the type of the blob programmatically by using the Azure Storage .NET SDK. 
C. Update the metadata of the current blob and set the Blob-Type key to Page. 
D. Create a new empty page blob and use the Azure Blob Copy Power Shell cmdlet to copy the current data to the new blob. 
Answer: A

You administer an Azure solution that uses a virtual network named FabVNet. FabVNet has a single subnet named Subnet-1. 
You discover a high volume of network traffic among four virtual machines (VMs) that are part of Subnet-1. 
You need to isolate the network traffic among the four VMs. You want to achieve this goal with the least amount of downtime and impact on users. 
What should you do? 
A. Create a new subnet in the existing virtual network and move the four VMs to the new subnet. 
B. Create a site-to-site virtual network and move the four VMs to your datacenter. 
C. Create a new virtual network and move the VMs to the new network. 
D. Create an availability set and associate the four VMs with that availability set. 
Answer: C 

DRAG DROP 
You manage a solution deployed in two Azure subscriptions for testing and production. Both subscriptions have virtual networks named fabVNet. 
You plan to add two new virtual machines (VMs) in a new subnet. 
You have the following requirements: 
- Deploy the new VMs to the virtual network in the testing subscription. 
- Minimize any errors in defining the network changes. 
- Minimize the work that will be required when the change is made to the production virtual network. 
Which three steps should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. 



Answer: 





You administer an Azure subscription with an existing cloud service named contosocloudservice. Contosocloudservice contains a set of related virtual machines (VMs) named ContosoDC, ContosoSQL and ContosoWeb1. 
You want to provision a new VM within contosocloudservice. 
You need to use the latest gallery image to create a new Windows Server 2012 R2 VM that has a target IOPS of 500 for any provisioned disks. 
Which PowerShell command should you use? 



A. Option A 
B. Option B 
C. Option C 
D. Option D 
Answer: D 


You plan to use Password Sync on your DirSync Server with Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) on your company network. You configure the DirSync server and complete an initial synchronization of the users.Several remote users are unable to log in to Office 365. You discover multiple event log entries for "Event ID 611 Password synchronization failed for domain."You need to resolve the password synchronization issue.Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. 
A. Restart Azure AD Sync Service. 
B. Run the Set-FullPasswordSync Power Shell cmdlet. 
C. Force a manual synchronization on the DirSync server. 
D. Add the DirSync service account to the Schema Admins domain group. 
Answer: A,B

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